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ISTQB-Foundation Level Exam Sample Questions (Q99-Q104):

NEW QUESTION # 99
Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity
B. Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details
C. Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product
D. Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity

Answer: B

Explanation:
* Looking for defects in a system does not require ignoring system details, but rather paying attention to them and understanding how they affect the system's quality, functionality, and usability. Ignoring system details could lead to missing important defects or testing irrelevant aspects of the system.
* Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product, especially by the developers or stakeholders who are invested in the product's success. However, identifying defects is not meant to be a personal attack, but rather a constructive feedback that helps to improve the product and ensure its alignment with the requirements and expectations of the users and clients.
* Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity, as testers need to anticipate and explore the possible ways that the system could fail, malfunction, or behave unexpectedly.
* Professional pessimism means being skeptical and critical of the system's quality and reliability, while curiosity means being eager and interested in finding out the root causes and consequences of the defects.
* Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity, as it involves finding and reporting the flaws and weaknesses of the system, rather than creating or enhancing it. However, testing is actually a constructive activity, as it contributes to the system's improvement, verification, validation, and optimization, and ultimately to the delivery of a high-quality product that meets the needs and expectations of the users and clients.

NEW QUESTION # 100
In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

A. Test design specification
B. Test plan
C. Requirements specification
D. Project plan

Answer: B

Explanation:
Test exit criteria are the conditions that must be fulfilled before concluding a particular testing phase. These criteria act as a checkpoint to assess whether we have achieved the testing objectives and are done with testing1. Test exit criteria are typically defined in the test plan document, which is one of the outputs of the test planning phase. The test plan document describes the scope, approach, resources, and schedule of the testing activities. It also identifies the test items, the features to be tested, the testing tasks, the risks, and the test deliverables2. According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, the test plan document should include the following information related to the test exit criteria3:
* The criteria for evaluating test completion, such as the percentage of test cases executed, the percentage of test coverage achieved, the number and severity of defects found and fixed, the quality and reliability of the software product, and the stakeholder satisfaction.
* The criteria for evaluating test process improvement, such as the adherence to the test strategy, the efficiency and effectiveness of the testing activities, the lessons learned and best practices identified, and the recommendations for future improvements.
Therefore, the test plan document is the most appropriate test document to find the test exit criteria described.
The other options, such as test design specification, project plan, and requirements specification, are not directly related to the test exit criteria. The test design specification describes the test cases and test procedures for a specific test level or test type3. The project plan describes the overall objectives, scope, assumptions, risks, and deliverables of the software project4. The requirements specification describes the functional and non-functional requirements of the software product5. None of these documents specify the conditions for ending the testing process or evaluating the testing outcomes. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Entry and Exit Criteria in Software Testing | Baeldung on Computer Science, Entry And Exit Criteria In Software Testing - Rishabh Software, Entry and Exit Criteria in Software Testing Life Cycle - STLC [2022 Updated] - Testsigma Blog, ISTQB releases Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0 (CTFL).

NEW QUESTION # 101
Which ONE of the following options identifies the perspectives through which acollective authorship processgenerates a shared vision of user stories?

A. Business, architecture, and testing
B. Product owner, development, and testing
C. Business, development, and acceptance testing
D. Business, development, and testing

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Business, development, and testing (C)are the three key perspectives inagile user story refinement:
* Business (Product Owner, Stakeholders)- Ensures the story aligns with user needs and business goals.
* Development (Developers)- Provides insights on feasibility and technical constraints.
* Testing (Testers, QA)- Ensures testability, acceptance criteria, and risk identification.
* (A) is incorrectbecause the product owner is part of business stakeholders.
* (B) is incorrectbecause architecture is part of development, but not the primary driver of user stories.
* (D) is incorrectbecauseacceptance testing is a process, not a stakeholder group.
Across-functional team collaborationensureswell-defined, testable, and feasibleuser stories.

NEW QUESTION # 102
The following 4 equivalence classes are given:
Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

A. -500; 0; 100; 1000
B. -99; 99:101; 1001
C. -100; 100:1000; 1001
D. -1000; -100; 100; 1000

Answer: D

Explanation:
* The question is about selecting the correct test values for x based on equivalence partitioning.
Equivalence partitioning is a software test design technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived. In this case, the given equivalence classes are:
* (x leq -100)
* (-100 < x < 100)
* (100 leq x < 1000)
* (x geq 1000)
Option D provides a value from each of these partitions:
* For (x leq -100), it gives -1000.
* For (-100 < x < 100), it gives -100 and 100.
* For (100 leq x < 1000), it gives 500.
* For (x geq 1000), it gives 1500.
So, option D covers all four given equivalence classes with appropriate values.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents available at ISTQB and ASTQB.
* 1: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 38
* 2: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 39
* : ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 40

NEW QUESTION # 103
An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states; Open, Assigned, Solved, Closed Consider the following defect report:
Id T000561
Test Object "Warehouse Management' application
Tester name; John Bishop
Date: 10th. April 2010
Test Case MRT558I
Status OPEN
Severity Serious
Priority
Problem- After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen, the system shows an unexpected Error message=47 Correction:
Developer name:
Closing date:
Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?

A. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem
B. The Priority, the Correction description and the Developer name are missing
C. The version of the application is missing
D. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability)

Answer: C

Explanation:
A valid criticism of this report is that the version of the application is missing. The version of the application is an important piece of information that should be included in a defect report, as it helps to identify which release or build of the software product contains the defect. The version of the application can also help to reproduce and debug the defect, as different versions may have different behaviors or features. The other options are not valid criticisms of this report. The priority, the correction description and the developer name are not missing, but rather not applicable for this report. The priority is a measure of how urgently a defect needs to be fixed, which can be assigned by the project manager or the defect tracking system, not by the tester who reports the defect. The correction description and the developer name are information that are added after the defect has been resolved, not when it has been reported. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability) is not a valid criticism of this report, because traceability is not a mandatory attribute of a defect report, but rather an optional one.Traceability is a relationship between two or more entities (such as requirements, test cases, defects, etc.) that shows how they are related or dependent on each other. Traceability can help to verify that the requirements are met by the test cases and defects, but it is not essential for reporting a defect. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem is not a valid criticism of this report, because highlighting the source of the problem is not a responsibility of the tester who reports the defect, but rather of the developer who fixes the defect. The description should provide enough information to describe what happened when the defect occurred, such as input values, expected results, actual results, error messages, screenshots, etc., but it does not need to explain why or how it happened. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 140.

NEW QUESTION # 104
......

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